RRB NTPC CBT 2 | Free Mock Test 2026 | 120 MCQs

Question 1

Consider the hierarchical order of prominent constitutional offices in India based on their precedence and constitutional authority. Which of the following constitutional posts is unequivocally ranked second, directly after the President of India, and what are its primary constitutional responsibilities?

Accepted Answer

Vice-President, who serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and acts as President in case of a vacancy.

Answer

Prime Minister, who is the head of the Council of Ministers and advises the President.

Answer

Chief Justice of India, who is the head of the Indian judiciary and ensures constitutional supremacy.

Answer

Governor of a State, who is the constitutional head of the state executive.

Question 2

What is the process by which an atom or molecule changes directly from a solid to a gas state without going through the liquid phase?

Accepted Answer

Sublimation

Answer

Deposition

Answer

Melting

Answer

Evaporation

Question 3

What is the primary cause of sleeping sickness?

Accepted Answer

Protozoa

Answer

Bacteria

Answer

Virus

Answer

Fungi

Question 4

A citizen files a complaint against a public officer who is legally obligated to perform a specific public duty but has arbitrarily refused to do so, causing inconvenience to the public. The citizen seeks a judicial remedy to compel the officer to perform their duty. Which of the following prerogative writs would be the most appropriate for the Supreme Court or a High Court to issue in this scenario, and what are its key characteristics and limitations?

Accepted Answer

Mandamus, an order compelling the public officer to perform a duty that they have refused to perform.

Answer

Habeas Corpus, which requires the officer to justify their refusal to perform the duty.

Answer

Quo Warranto, which questions the legal authority under which the officer holds their public office.

Answer

Certiorari, to quash an order made by the public officer if it was beyond their jurisdiction.

Question 5

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) plays a pivotal role in India's financial system, overseeing monetary policy, currency issuance, and banking regulation. However, certain financial market functions fall under the purview of other specialized regulatory bodies. Considering this, identify the statement that accurately describes a function *not* directly performed by the RBI, and also name the primary regulatory body responsible for that specific function.

Accepted Answer

Promoting the development and regulation of the securities market (SEBI)

Answer

Issuance of currency notes (Currency Controller)

Answer

Managing government's banking needs (Government's Banker)

Answer

Custodian of cash reserves of commercial banks (Banker's Bank)

Question 6

The Chandrasekhar Limit is a critical value in stellar astrophysics, representing the maximum mass a white dwarf star can stably support against gravitational collapse, primarily due to electron degeneracy pressure. What is the approximate value of this limit, and what is the typical fate of a stellar remnant that significantly exceeds this mass during its evolution?

Accepted Answer

Approximately 1.44 solar masses; it typically collapses into a neutron star or, if even more massive, a black hole.

Answer

Approximately 0.8 solar masses; it remains a stable white dwarf indefinitely.

Answer

Approximately 2.0 solar masses; it sheds excess mass to become a stable red giant.

Answer

Approximately 3.2 solar masses; it simply expands and cools into a brown dwarf.

Question 7

The Anushilan Samiti was one of Bengal's pioneering revolutionary organizations, playing a crucial role in India's freedom struggle. Considering its complex structure, multiple centers (like Calcutta and Dhaka), and a wide network of members, which of the following revolutionaries was *primarily* associated with a *different* major revolutionary organization, specifically the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA), rather than the Anushilan Samiti?

Accepted Answer

Rajendra Lahiri

Answer

Bhupendra Nath Datta

Answer

Barindra Kumar Ghosh

Answer

Jatindranath Banerjee

Question 8

The Indian government classifies Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) into Maharatna, Navratna, and Miniratna categories to grant them greater operational and financial autonomy. Based on the established criteria for Maharatna status, which typically includes a consistent net profit, significant net worth, and high annual turnover over three consecutive years, along with a global presence, identify the enterprise from the following options that, as of early 2024, does NOT hold Maharatna status, despite being a prominent public sector undertaking.

Accepted Answer

Oil India Limited

Answer

GAIL (India) Limited

Answer

Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)

Answer

National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC)

Question 9

The World Wide Web (WWW) revolutionized global information access. Identify the visionary computer scientist credited with its invention and the initial development of fundamental technologies like HTML, HTTP, and the first web browser/server, conceptualizing a system for information sharing across networks.

Accepted Answer

Tim Berners-Lee

Answer

Vint Cerf

Answer

Charles Babbage

Answer

Alan Turing

Question 10

The 'Me-Dam-Me-Phi' festival is a significant annual event celebrated in Northeast India, primarily by a community known for its rich historical legacy and unique cultural practices, including ancestor worship. This festival, held on January 31st, involves various rituals dedicated to departed ancestors and gods, reflecting the community's belief system and societal structure. Which of the following communities is primarily associated with the celebration of 'Me-Dam-Me-Phi'?

Accepted Answer

Tai-Ahom

Answer

Nishi

Answer

Kuki

Answer

Angami

Question 11

The NASA Messenger mission, launched in 2004, was a robotic spacecraft designed to orbit and study Mercury. Which of the following statements accurately describe a primary scientific objective or a key characteristic of the Messenger mission?

Accepted Answer

To map the entire surface of Mercury in color and stereo imagery, analyze its exosphere, and measure its magnetic field.

Answer

To investigate the possibility of liquid water oceans beneath Mercury's surface and search for signs of extraterrestrial life.

Answer

To study the composition of Mercury's atmosphere and its interaction with the solar wind, similar to Venus Express.

Answer

To deploy rovers on Mercury's surface to collect rock and soil samples and analyze their geological history.

Question 12

A geological survey team identifies a vast granitic batholith in a geologically active region, characterized by a history of intense orogenic activity, significant past volcanic eruptions, and a current classification within India's Seismic Zone IV. Considering these geological observations, which of the following statements comprehensively and accurately describes the formation, properties, and tectonic implications of this granitic intrusion?

Accepted Answer

This granite batholith is a result of intrusive igneous activity, formed from the slow cooling and crystallization of felsic magma deep within the Earth's crust. Its presence in an orogenic belt within Seismic Zone IV indicates a history of continental plate collision or subduction, leading to crustal thickening, regional metamorphism, and the generation of such silicic magmas, which solidify slowly to form coarse-grained rocks like granite. The associated moderate seismic activity reflects ongoing tectonic stresses along these active plate margins.

Answer

The granite batholith represents extrusive igneous rock formed from rapid cooling of lava flows on the surface during ancient volcanic eruptions. Its location in Seismic Zone IV suggests that it is primarily a product of oceanic hot spots, independent of continental plate interactions, with seismic activity mainly due to minor crustal adjustments.

Answer

This granite formation is predominantly a metamorphic rock, derived from intense pressure and temperature alteration of pre-existing sedimentary layers. Its fine-grained texture and mafic composition are typical for rocks found in Seismic Zone IV, indicating deep-seated transformations rather than magmatic origin.

Answer

The batholith is an example of a sedimentary rock that has undergone significant compaction and cementation under high tectonic stress, leading to its characteristic crystalline structure. The Seismic Zone IV classification is solely a result of the batholith's sheer mass and its gravitational pull, which induces localized tremors, completely unrelated to larger plate tectonic forces.

Question 13

The State Bank of India (SBI), a cornerstone of Indian banking, has a rich and complex history evolving from early colonial institutions. Which of the following chronological sequences correctly outlines significant milestones leading to the modern SBI, and identifies the year its current name was adopted?

Accepted Answer

Bank of Bengal established (1806) -> Imperial Bank of India formed (1921) -> State Bank of India adopted its name (1955)

Answer

Imperial Bank of India formed (1806) -> Presidency Banks merged (1921) -> State Bank of India formed (1948)

Answer

Bank of Bombay established (1840) -> Nationalization of banks (1969) -> State Bank of India adopted its name (1951)

Answer

Bank of Madras established (1843) -> Reserve Bank of India established (1935) -> State Bank of India adopted its name (1955)

Question 14

What is the name of the plateau in India that is bounded by the Aravalli Range to the northwest, the Satpura Range to the south, and the Chhattisgarh Plains to the east?

Accepted Answer

Deccan Plateau

Answer

Chhattisgarh Plateau

Answer

Malwa Plateau

Answer

Bihar Plateau

Question 15

What is the name of the national park in which the Dibru-Saikhowa wildlife sanctuary is located?

Accepted Answer

Dibru-Saikhowa National Park

Answer

Deoban National Park

Answer

Nameri National Park

Answer

Orang National Park

Question 16

In the historical context of India's economic planning discussions leading up to independence, a significant blueprint known as the 'Bombay Plan' was formulated by a consortium of prominent industrialists. This plan aimed to guide India's post-independence economic development towards a planned economy. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the 'Bombay Plan' and its key features and objectives?

Accepted Answer

The Bombay Plan, formulated in 1944, advocated for a planned economy model with a strong focus on agricultural restructuring and the development of essential consumer goods industries, aiming to double the per capita income over a 15-year period through significant state intervention and public sector involvement.

Answer

The Bombay Plan, presented in 1947, primarily focused on rapid industrialization through a 'trickle-down' approach, expecting economic benefits to gradually reach all sections of society, and proposed a minimal role for the state in economic affairs.

Answer

Drafted in 1934 by M.N. Roy, the 'People's Plan' was a Marxist-socialist alternative to the Bombay Plan, prioritizing heavy industry and large-scale state ownership, intending to achieve a 25% increase in national income within five years.

Answer

The Bombay Plan, proposed in 1950, focused on a decentralized planning model and emphasized small-scale industries and village self-sufficiency, with the primary objective of eliminating poverty and ensuring equitable distribution of wealth through cooperative farming.

Question 17

The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) plays a pivotal role in ensuring quality and standardization within India's diverse economy, operating under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution. However, its responsibilities are sometimes conflated with other governmental regulatory bodies. Which of the following statements accurately describes the primary functions and historical establishment of the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) while correctly distinguishing its scope from other related authorities?

Accepted Answer

BIS is fundamentally responsible for the formulation, publication, and promotion of Indian Standards, operating product certification schemes (including the ISI mark) for both domestic and foreign manufacturers, and management system certification. It was formally established on April 1, 1987, replacing the erstwhile Indian Standards Institution (ISI) which was founded in 1947.

Answer

BIS's mandate includes not only the development of national standards for goods and services but also the exclusive authority to set and enforce safety and regulatory processes for the entire food industry, from production to retail. The organization functions through its seven regional offices strategically located across India.

Answer

The Bureau of Indian Standards was established in 2010 with the sole objective of facilitating voluntary product certification and providing direct financial assistance to micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs) to enhance their product quality and export competitiveness.

Answer

BIS primarily serves as the administrative body for India's Public Distribution System (PDS), responsible for determining the issue prices of essential commodities at a rate significantly below market value, thereby directly managing food and consumer subsidies for vulnerable populations.

Question 18

The Indian government implements various policies and schemes to bolster agricultural sustainability and ensure farmers' income security. Among these are the 'Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY)' for organic farming and the 'Minimum Support Price (MSP)' regime. Analyze the following statements concerning these initiatives and choose the option that accurately reflects their characteristics and operational aspects:

I. The Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) was launched in April 2015 as a sub-component of the Soil Health Management (SHM) scheme under the National Mission on Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA), aiming to promote organic farming through a cluster-based approach.
II. Under PKVY, financial assistance is provided annually for general agricultural inputs, independent of farmers' commitment to organic farming practices.
III. The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) recommends Minimum Support Prices (MSPs) for 22 mandated crops, including Kharif, Rabi, and commercial crops, based on detailed cost of production analysis.
IV. The procurement operations under the MSP mechanism are primarily managed by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD).

Accepted Answer

Only statements (I) and (III) are correct.

Answer

Only statements (I) and (II) are correct.

Answer

Only statements (III) and (IV) are correct.

Answer

Statements (I), (II), and (III) are correct.

Question 19

The term 'Indradhanush' has been associated with two distinct, yet equally important, government initiatives in India, often causing confusion among aspirants due to their identical nomenclature but different sectoral focuses. One addresses public health, while the other targets economic policy and financial sector stability. Analyze the following statements and identify the option that correctly differentiates between 'Mission Indradhanush' and 'Indradhanush 2.0' based on their primary objectives and scope.

Accepted Answer

Mission Indradhanush is a comprehensive vaccination program targeting children under two years and pregnant women to achieve full immunization, whereas Indradhanush 2.0 is a financial sector reform package specifically for the recapitalization of Public Sector Banks (PSBs).

Answer

Both Mission Indradhanush and Indradhanush 2.0 are related to strengthening India's financial sector by improving banking liquidity and addressing non-performing assets.

Answer

Mission Indradhanush focuses on rural infrastructure development, while Indradhanush 2.0 is an initiative to promote digital literacy across all age groups in urban areas.

Answer

Indradhanush 2.0 is an enhanced version of Mission Indradhanush, expanding its scope to include universal health insurance coverage for all citizens, in addition to childhood immunization.

Question 20

India's journey of planned economic development commenced with a series of Five-Year Plans, each structured around distinct economic models and specific objectives to address the nation's developmental challenges. The First and Second Five-Year Plans were foundational, setting different, yet interconnected, priorities. Evaluate the following statements comparing the First and Second Five-Year Plans concerning their foundational models, primary objectives, and key economic strategies, and select the option that accurately represents their characteristics.

Accepted Answer

Statements (I) and (II) are correct.

Answer

Statements (I) and (III) are correct.

Answer

Statements (II) and (IV) are correct.

Answer

Statements (I), (II), and (III) are correct.

Question 21

Evaluate the following statements regarding prominent Indian literary works, authors, and their historical significance. Identify the statement that is INCORRECT.

Accepted Answer

Raja Ram Mohan Roy initiated the 'Samvad Kaumudi' newspaper in 1821, using it as a platform primarily to advocate for the abolition of Sati and promote social reforms. This publication was initially in Sanskrit.

Answer

Rabindranath Tagore became the first Indian to win the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913 for his poetry collection 'Gitanjali', which reflected deep spiritual insights and Bengali cultural richness.

Answer

Mahatma Gandhi's seminal work 'Hind Swaraj', published in 1909, critically analyzed the impacts of Western civilization and articulated his vision for true self-rule (Swaraj) in India, arguing that British rule was sustained by Indian cooperation.

Answer

Jyotirao Phule, a social reformer from Maharashtra, authored 'Gulamgiri' in 1871, a powerful critique against the caste system and its injustices, advocating for the rights of lower castes.

Question 22

Consider the following statements regarding international and national governance and economic initiatives: 1. The concept of 'Global Commons' refers to areas or resources that are not under the sovereign jurisdiction of any single nation-state and are hence managed by the international community for the benefit of all. The high seas, outer space, Antarctica, and cyber space are recognized examples. 2. The term 'Brexit' was coined by Peter Wilding, and it denotes the United Kingdom's decision to withdraw from the European Union following a referendum in June 2016, a move that initiated complex negotiations and significant geopolitical shifts. 3. The 'One District One Product' (ODOP) scheme, launched by the Uttar Pradesh government in 2018, aims to identify, promote, and brand a unique product or craft from each district, fostering local entrepreneurship and economic development, but does not involve direct financial subsidies to artisans. Which of the statements above are CORRECT?

Accepted Answer

1 and 2 only

Answer

2 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only

Answer

1, 2 and 3

Question 23

Match the following authors with their prominent works or significant contributions, and select the correct combination:

Accepted Answer

P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1

Answer

P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3

Answer

P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

Answer

P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

Question 24

Analyze the following statements concerning the structure, functions, and key declarations of the United Nations (UN): 1. The UN Security Council (UNSC) comprises five permanent members (USA, UK, France, Russia, China) with veto power, and ten non-permanent members elected for two-year terms by the General Assembly. India was elected as a non-permanent member for a two-year term starting January 2021. 2. The United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA) is the specialized UN agency directly related to human reproductive health, established in 1969, with a mission to create a world where every pregnancy is wanted and every childbirth is safe. 3. Dag Hammarskjöld, a former UN Secretary-General, famously stated, "The United Nations was not created to take humanity to heaven, but to save it from hell," emphasizing the organization's role in preventing global conflicts and humanitarian crises. 4. The UN Consumer Bill comprehensively defines consumer rights including the right to safety, the right to choose, and the right to redressal, but explicitly excludes the 'right to competition' as a core consumer protection principle. Which of the above statements are CORRECT?

Accepted Answer

1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer

1, 2 and 3 only

Answer

1, 3 and 4 only

Answer

2, 3 and 4 only

Question 25

Consider the historical significance and recent developments concerning prominent Indian memorials. The 'Amar Jawan Jyoti', a revered Indian memorial, was established in January 1972 following the Indo-Pak War of 1971 to honor fallen soldiers. For decades, it stood as a perpetual flame beneath the arch of the India Gate. However, in January 2022, a significant change occurred. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the *current status and relocation* of the Amar Jawan Jyoti flame?

Accepted Answer

The Amar Jawan Jyoti flame was relocated and permanently merged with the flame at the National War Memorial, symbolizing a unified tribute to all fallen soldiers.

Answer

The original Amar Jawan Jyoti flame at India Gate was extinguished and a new, distinct flame was lit at the National War Memorial.

Answer

The Amar Jawan Jyoti flame at India Gate continues to burn independently, while a separate, identical flame was additionally inaugurated at the National War Memorial.

Answer

The flame was moved from India Gate to a new memorial constructed at Rajpath (now Kartavya Path) as part of an urban redesign project, entirely replacing its original location.

Question 26

Consider the foundational inventions that revolutionized various fields of science and technology. Which of the following pairings of an invention with its primary inventor is INCORRECT, necessitating a deeper understanding of historical scientific contributions?

Accepted Answer

Long-Distance Telephony - John Logie Baird

Answer

Penicillin - Alexander Fleming

Answer

Electric Incandescent Lamp - Thomas Alva Edison

Answer

Smallpox Vaccine - Edward Jenner

Question 27

Nuclear reactions, broadly categorized into fission and fusion, represent the most potent sources of energy. Considering the fundamental principles and practical requirements, which statement accurately describes a key characteristic of nuclear fusion and the primary fuel for controlled nuclear fission reactors?

Accepted Answer

Nuclear fusion requires temperatures in the range of tens to hundreds of millions of Kelvin, and uranium-235 is the most common primary fuel for nuclear fission reactors.

Answer

Nuclear fusion can occur at room temperature, while plutonium-239 is the only viable fuel for fission reactors.

Answer

Nuclear fusion uses heavy water as its primary fuel source, and nuclear fission primarily utilizes thorium-232 without any enrichment.

Answer

Both nuclear fusion and fission occur spontaneously in nature at ambient conditions, requiring no special fuel or temperature control.

Question 28

Sound waves are a fascinating phenomenon with distinct physical properties that govern their generation, propagation, and perception. Evaluate the following statements regarding sound waves and identify the most accurate and comprehensive description of their characteristics.

Accepted Answer

Sound waves are mechanical waves requiring a material medium for propagation, travelling fastest in solids and slowest in gases, and the typical human audible frequency range is from 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz.

Answer

Sound waves are electromagnetic waves that can travel through a vacuum, with their speed being constant across all media, and any frequency above 10 Hz is audible to humans.

Answer

Sound waves are transverse mechanical waves that always travel faster in liquids than in solids, and the human ear can perceive frequencies ranging from 1 Hz to 100,000 Hz, with infrasound being above this range.

Answer

Sound waves are longitudinal waves, but their propagation speed is independent of the medium's density and elasticity, and frequencies below 20 kHz are universally classified as ultrasound.

Question 29

Physics relies on precise measurement using standardized units. Among the following statements, which one accurately defines a specific unit or correctly associates a physical quantity with its standard or commonly accepted unit, reflecting a robust understanding of dimensional analysis and scientific notation?

Accepted Answer

The Astronomical Unit (AU) is defined as the mean distance from the Earth to the Sun, approximately 1.496 × 10^11 meters, while the SI unit for the power of a lens is the Diopter.

Answer

A light-year is a unit of time representing the duration it takes for light to travel from the Sun to Earth, and the SI unit for electric resistance is the Ampere.

Answer

The Decibel is the SI unit for frequency, primarily used in acoustics, and one Gallon is precisely equivalent to 10 liters in the international system.

Answer

Force is measured in Joules, an energy unit, and radioactivity is exclusively measured in Becquerels, never in Curies, as Curie is an outdated, non-SI unit without modern relevance.

Question 30

The annals of physics are marked by groundbreaking discoveries and theoretical formulations that have fundamentally reshaped our understanding of the universe. Consider the following statements about pivotal scientific contributions and their originators. Which statement presents an INCORRECT association or a misunderstanding of the scientific principle involved?

Accepted Answer

Henri Becquerel is solely credited with the invention of the first practical computer mouse in the 1960s, a device crucial for human-computer interaction, prior to his later work on radioactivity.

Answer

Albert Einstein formulated the mass-energy equivalence, famously expressed as E=mc^2, indicating that mass and energy are interconvertible, a cornerstone of modern physics.

Answer

Sir Isaac Newton demonstrated the dispersion of white light into its constituent seven colors through a prism in 1666, establishing the compound nature of light.

Answer

Wilhelm Conrad Röntgen discovered X-rays, a form of electromagnetic radiation, in 1895, revolutionizing medical diagnostics and material science.

Question 31

Galvanization is a widely used process to protect iron and steel from corrosion. Among the following statements concerning galvanization, identify the one that is INCORRECT.

Accepted Answer

The primary advantage of galvanization over other coating methods like painting is its aesthetic appeal and the fact that it is a purely physical barrier preventing oxygen and moisture from reaching the iron.

Answer

Zinc coating protects iron by acting as a sacrificial anode, meaning it corrodes preferentially over iron when exposed to the environment.

Answer

Even if the zinc coating is scratched, exposing the underlying iron, the adjacent zinc will continue to provide cathodic protection to the iron.

Answer

The protective layer formed on the surface of galvanized iron is primarily a stable, adherent layer of zinc oxide and basic zinc carbonate.

Question 32

The Modern Periodic Table, based on atomic number, arranges elements according to their electron configurations and recurring chemical properties. Considering this, evaluate the following statements regarding the periodic trends and classification of elements, and choose the INCORRECT statement:

Accepted Answer

The Lanthanide series comprises elements with atomic numbers from 57 (Lanthanum) to 78, while the Actinide series includes elements with atomic numbers from 89 (Actinium) to 103.

Answer

As one moves down a group in the periodic table, the atomic size generally increases due to the addition of new electron shells, and the metallic character tends to increase.

Answer

The elements located in Groups 3 through 12 are collectively known as transition elements, characterized by partially filled d-orbitals in their atoms.

Answer

The valence electrons, which determine the chemical reactivity and bonding behavior of an element, remain consistent for all elements within the same main group as one moves down the group.

Question 33

Several sodium compounds play crucial roles in daily life and various industries. Consider the properties and applications of Sodium Carbonate (Washing Soda), Sodium Bicarbonate (Baking Soda), and Sodium Hydroxide (Caustic Soda). Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

Accepted Answer

Baking powder is simply anhydrous sodium bicarbonate, which releases carbon dioxide gas upon heating, making it suitable as a leavening agent in baked goods.

Answer

Sodium carbonate, commonly known as washing soda (Na₂CO₃·10H₂O), is widely used in laundry, glass manufacturing, and specifically for removing both temporary and permanent hardness of water due to its ability to precipitate calcium and magnesium ions.

Answer

Sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO₃), or baking soda, is a mild, non-corrosive base. It is used as an antacid, in baking as a leavening agent (producing CO₂ upon heating), and to neutralize acidic stings like that of an ant bite due to formic acid.

Answer

Sodium hydroxide (NaOH), known as caustic soda, is a strong alkali. Its applications include soap and detergent manufacturing, petroleum refining, and as a strong base in various chemical processes, but it is not typically found as an ingredient in common toothpaste formulations.

Question 34

Chemical and physical processes govern numerous phenomena in our daily lives and industrial applications. Consider the following processes and their descriptions. Which of the following statements INCORRECTLY describes a process or its associated application?

Accepted Answer

Condensation is a physical process where a substance changes directly from a solid to a gaseous state without passing through a liquid phase, a phenomenon exemplified by the formation of clouds and dew.

Answer

Diffusion is the net movement of particles from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration, driven by the random motion of particles, and is crucial for gas exchange in biological systems like oxygen entering plasma membranes.

Answer

The conversion of sugar into alcohol, typically through the action of microorganisms like yeast in the absence of oxygen, is a biochemical process known as fermentation, widely used in brewing and ethanol production.

Answer

Aerated beverages like soda water derive their fizziness from dissolved carbon dioxide gas, which is kept under high pressure in the sealed container and escapes as bubbles when the pressure is released.

Question 35

Chemical reactions involve changes in electron configuration and bonding between atoms. Understanding types of bonds and redox processes is fundamental to chemistry. Which of the following statements regarding chemical bonding and redox reactions is INCORRECT?

Accepted Answer

Hydrogenation of vegetable oils, a process used to produce solid fats like margarine, is an example of an oxidation reaction where hydrogen is added across double bonds, increasing the oxygen content of the fatty acids.

Answer

Covalent bonds are formed when two atoms share electrons to achieve a stable electron configuration, typically a completely filled outermost valence shell, as exemplified in molecules like H₂O or CH₄.

Answer

Ionic compounds generally exhibit high melting and boiling points, are hard and brittle in their solid state, and conduct electricity well when molten or dissolved in water due to the mobility of their ions.

Answer

Oxidation is defined as a chemical process involving the loss of electrons by an atom, molecule, or ion, which can also be characterized by an increase in oxidation state, addition of oxygen, or removal of hydrogen.

Question 36

A botanist observes a plant exhibiting accelerated stem growth, delayed senescence in some leaves, and specific directional growth towards a light source. Concurrently, other parts of the plant show inhibited seed germination and premature fruit drop. Which combination of plant physiological processes and hormones best explains these observed phenomena?

Accepted Answer

Accelerated stem growth: Gibberellins; Delayed senescence: Cytokinins; Directional growth: Phototropism; Inhibited seed germination & fruit drop: Abscisic Acid.

Answer

Accelerated stem growth: Auxins; Delayed senescence: Ethylene; Directional growth: Gravitropism; Inhibited seed germination & fruit drop: Gibberellins.

Answer

Accelerated stem growth: Ethylene; Delayed senescence: Auxins; Directional growth: Thigmotropism; Inhibited seed germination & fruit drop: Cytokinins.

Answer

Accelerated stem growth: Abscisic Acid; Delayed senescence: Gibberellins; Directional growth: Chemotropism; Inhibited seed germination & fruit drop: Auxins.

Question 37

Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are among the simplest bilaterally symmetrical animals. Considering their relatively primitive body plan and ecological niches, which of the following organ systems is typically absent or significantly simplified, relying primarily on diffusion for essential physiological processes, and why is this adaptation common in such organisms?

Accepted Answer

Respiratory System

Answer

Excretory System

Answer

Digestive System

Answer

Reproductive System

Question 38

A scientist discovers a new species in a freshwater environment. The organism exhibits a segmented body, possesses a closed circulatory system, lacks a true internal skeleton (vertebral column), and respires through its moist skin. It also shows hermaphroditism and reproduces sexually. Based on these characteristics, and comparing it with other animal phyla, which of the following statements about its classification and distinguishing features is most accurate?

Accepted Answer

The organism belongs to Phylum Annelida, characterized by metameric segmentation, absence of a vertebral column, and cutaneous respiration, clearly distinguishing it from vertebrates like Cyclostomata and Pisces.

Answer

The organism belongs to Phylum Arthropoda, evident from its segmented body and jointed appendages, but its closed circulatory system and cutaneous respiration are unusual for this phylum.

Answer

The organism is likely a primitive Chordate, as its segmented body and sexual reproduction are features shared with some members of this phylum, despite the absence of a vertebral column.

Answer

The organism represents Phylum Mollusca due to its soft body and freshwater habitat, however, the presence of segmentation and cutaneous respiration are not typical for this group.

Question 39

A patient presents with symptoms including an abnormally high metabolic rate, weight loss despite increased appetite, bulging eyes (exophthalmos), and heat intolerance. Further diagnostic tests reveal elevated levels of a specific hormone and an enlarged gland in the neck region. Concurrently, another patient exhibits symptoms of persistent high blood glucose levels, frequent urination, and increased thirst. Considering the intricate regulation of the human endocrine system, which of the following is the most accurate diagnosis for both patients, along with the correct hormonal imbalances and the primary glands involved?

Accepted Answer

Patient 1: Graves' Disease due to hypersecretion of Thyroxine from the Thyroid gland; Patient 2: Diabetes Mellitus due to insufficient Insulin production from the Pancreas (Islets of Langerhans).

Answer

Patient 1: Addison's Disease due to hypersecretion of Parathormone from the Parathyroid gland; Patient 2: Diabetes Insipidus due to excess Glucagon from the Pancreas.

Answer

Patient 1: Cushing's Syndrome due to hyposecretion of Estrogen from the Adrenal gland; Patient 2: Hypoglycemia due to overproduction of Somatostatin from the Pituitary gland.

Answer

Patient 1: Myxedema due to hyposecretion of Vasopressin from the Pituitary gland; Patient 2: Acromegaly due to high Growth Hormone from the Adrenal gland.

Question 40

A botanist studies a xerophytic plant species, focusing on its reproductive cycle and adaptations for survival in dry conditions. During the germination of its seeds, a specific embryonic part rapidly elongates downwards to establish a root system, while another part develops into the shoot. The adult plant exhibits reduced leaves modified into spines and a fleshy stem performing photosynthesis. Which of the following statements accurately describes the embryonic development and the key adaptations for photosynthesis in this plant, linking it to the efficiency of light utilization?

Accepted Answer

The radicle develops into the root system, and the plumule forms the shoot. The fleshy stem performs photosynthesis, which is most efficient in red light, utilizing CO2 absorbed at night via CAM pathway to minimize water loss.

Answer

The plumule develops into the root system, and the radicle forms the shoot. The modified leaves perform photosynthesis, which is most efficient in green light, allowing daytime CO2 uptake.

Answer

The cotyledons develop into the root system, and the epicotyl forms the shoot. The stem performs photosynthesis, which is equally efficient across all visible light spectrums, maximizing energy capture.

Answer

The hypocotyl develops into the root system, and the scutellum forms the shoot. The roots perform photosynthesis, which is least efficient in blue light, and requires continuous water supply for transpiration.

Question 41

A professional graphic designer is setting up a new workstation, carefully selecting peripherals for optimal performance. Considering various computer components and display technologies, which of the following statements is **INCORRECT**?

Accepted Answer

A plotter, frequently employed in Computer-Aided Design (CAD) and Computer-Aided Manufacturing (CAM) applications, functions as an input device to digitize large-format drawings and blueprints.

Answer

A Video Display Unit (VDU), commonly known as a monitor, is an output device that converts electrical signals into visual images for user interaction.

Answer

A 16-bit color depth monitor can display a maximum of 65,536 distinct colors, which is derived from the formula 2^N, where N is the bit depth.

Answer

Devices such as the mouse, keyboard, and trackball are fundamentally classified as input devices because they allow users to send data and commands to the computer for processing.

Question 42

An IT professional is preparing a presentation on fundamental computer science concepts and internet technologies. To avoid common misconceptions, which of the following statements should be identified as **INCORRECT**?

Accepted Answer

Claude Shannon, revered as the 'father of information theory', primarily developed theoretical models for analogue communication systems, laying the groundwork for modern telecommunications but not directly for binary logic in digital computing.

Answer

The acronym URL stands for 'Uniform Resource Locator', which is a unique address used to identify resources on the World Wide Web.

Answer

Cloud storage solutions, such as Google Drive and Dropbox, enable users to store data on remote servers managed by a third party, providing accessibility from multiple devices and locations.

Answer

International Business Machines (IBM) divested its personal computer division to Lenovo in 2005, marking a strategic shift to focus on enterprise solutions and services.

Question 43

A newly appointed IT manager is conducting an inventory of various peripherals and input/output technologies in a large office. To correctly categorize and understand the functionality of each device, which of the following statements contains an **INCORRECT** classification or description of a common computer peripheral?

Accepted Answer

Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is an output technology that processes scanned images of text documents to convert them into editable digital formats, enabling quick data entry into a computer system.

Answer

A trackball is a type of pointing device that functions similarly to an upside-down mouse, where the user manipulates a ball to control the cursor on the screen, classifying it as an input device.

Answer

A plotter is a highly specialized output device essential for producing precise, high-resolution vector graphics and large-scale technical drawings, commonly used in fields like architecture and engineering.

Answer

The operational speed of modern printers, especially laser printers, is typically measured in Pages Per Minute (PPM), indicating the quantity of standard-sized pages they can print in sixty seconds.

Question 44

A professional is engaged in preparing a detailed analytical report, utilizing various Microsoft Office applications, and concurrently performing online research. To ensure accuracy in technical descriptions, which of the following statements about common software applications and web technologies is **INCORRECT**?

Accepted Answer

Safari is a well-known graphical web browser, primarily developed by Apple and based on the WebKit rendering engine, but it is also an integral component of the MS Office 365 suite, providing integrated web functionalities.

Answer

In Microsoft Excel, when numeric data is entered into a cell, it typically aligns to the right by default, aiding in columnar sum calculations, while text data, by default, aligns to the left.

Answer

The 'Formula Bar' in an Excel worksheet displays the actual content of the active cell, which includes the formula itself if a calculation is present, allowing for editing, while the cell itself shows the computed result.

Answer

Microsoft Word's 'Strikethrough' feature is an effective tool for text formatting, used to draw a horizontal line through the middle of selected text, often signifying its deletion or to indicate revised content without removing it entirely.

Question 45

A cybersecurity expert is lecturing on network architecture, internet protocols, and secure communication. During the session, he asks the participants to identify a statement that is **INCORRECT** regarding these topics to test their conceptual understanding. Which statement should be chosen?

Accepted Answer

A firewall is a network security system that exclusively monitors outgoing network traffic, filtering data packets based on a set of predefined security rules to prevent unauthorized data exfiltration from a private network.

Answer

The Domain Name System (DNS) is a hierarchical and decentralized naming system for computers, services, or any resource connected to the Internet or a private network, primarily translating domain names into IP addresses.

Answer

Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) is a data communication technology that enables high-speed internet access over traditional copper telephone lines by utilizing a broader range of frequencies than voice calls, typically providing faster download speeds than upload speeds.

Answer

In the Uniform Resource Locator (URL) `https://www.example.com/products/item.php?id=123`, the segment `/products/item.php` precisely identifies the specific path to the resource (a PHP script in this case) on the web server.

Question 46

The Ramsar Convention, an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable utilization of wetlands, plays a crucial role in global ecological balance. Consider the following statements regarding wetlands and related international efforts in India: 1. World Wetlands Day is celebrated annually on February 2nd, commemorating the adoption of the Ramsar Convention. 2. The Sundarbans, recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is the largest single block of tidal halophytic mangrove forest in the world and is also a designated Ramsar Site in India. 3. India ratified the Ramsar Convention in 1982, and since then, the number of Ramsar sites in the country has steadily increased, contributing significantly to biodiversity conservation. Which of the above statements is/are correct and comprehensively reflect the spirit of wetland conservation efforts?

Accepted Answer

1, 2 and 3

Answer

1 and 2 only

Answer

2 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only

Question 47

Conservation strategies are crucial for preserving biodiversity amidst various environmental pressures. When endangered or rare species are protected and managed outside their natural habitats, this approach is known as ex-situ conservation. Consider the following scenarios: 1. Establishing a seed bank for endemic plant species of the Western Ghats. 2. Relocating a population of critically endangered Siberian Cranes from a threatened wetland to a specially designed sanctuary. 3. Implementing strict anti-poaching measures within a national park to safeguard a native tiger population. 4. Cultivating rare medicinal plants in botanical gardens for research and propagation. Which of the above scenarios primarily represent 'ex-situ' conservation efforts?

Accepted Answer

1, 2, and 4 only

Answer

1 and 4 only

Answer

2 and 3 only

Answer

1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 48

Vehicular emissions are a significant contributor to air pollution, especially in urban areas. In India, the 'Bharat Stage (BS) Emission Standards' regulate the output of air pollutants from internal combustion engines. Consider the following statements regarding vehicular pollution and its control: 1. Lead was a prominent pollutant in automobile exhaust, especially before the widespread adoption of unleaded petrol, causing neurotoxic effects. 2. The transition from Bharat Stage III to Bharat Stage IV emission norms significantly reduced the permissible levels of sulfur in fuels and mandated catalytic converters for most vehicles. 3. The primary objective of Bharat Stage emission standards is to mitigate pollution from industrial effluents discharged into water bodies and soil. 4. Modern BS VI vehicles are designed to emit substantially lower levels of nitrogen oxides (NOx) and particulate matter (PM) compared to earlier BS standards. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1, 2 and 4 only

Answer

1 and 4 only

Answer

2 and 3 only

Answer

1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 49

India's diverse geography supports a rich array of National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries, each designated for the conservation of specific ecosystems and species. Evaluate the following pairs of protected areas and their notable ecological characteristics or flagship species:

1.  **Dachigam National Park**: Known for being the primary habitat of the critically endangered Hangul, also known as the Kashmiri Stag.
2.  **Silent Valley National Park**: Represents one of the last remaining undisturbed tracts of evergreen rainforests in the Western Ghats of Kerala, crucial for biodiversity.
3.  **Kanha National Park**: Renowned primarily for its significant population of migratory waterbirds and being a crucial stopover point for avian species.
4.  **Gir National Park**: The sole natural habitat for the Asiatic Lion, a subspecies found exclusively in this region of Gujarat.

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

1, 2 and 4 only

Answer

1 and 3 only

Answer

2, 3 and 4 only

Answer

1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 50

India has made significant strides in wildlife conservation, particularly with its Project Tiger, which aims to protect the Bengal Tiger and its habitats. Similarly, the Asiatic Lion is also a critically important species. Consider the following statements regarding major conservation areas in India: 1. Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana is currently the largest tiger reserve in India by area. 2. The Srivilliputhur Megamalai Tiger Reserve in Tamil Nadu was designated as India's 51st tiger reserve, enhancing conservation efforts in the Southern Western Ghats. 3. Gir National Park in Gujarat is the only natural habitat where the critically endangered Asiatic Lion can be found, making it a unique conservation success story. 4. As of early 2024, India has officially designated 56 tiger reserves under Project Tiger. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

1, 2 and 3 only

Answer

1, 3 and 4 only

Answer

2, 3 and 4 only

Answer

1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 51

If the 8-digit number 789x531y is divisible by 72, find the value of (5x - 3y) for the largest possible value of y.

Accepted Answer

-1

Answer

1

Answer

3

Answer

-3

Question 52

Simplify the following expression: (0.35 × 0.35 × 0.35 + 0.65 × 0.65 × 0.65) / (0.35 × 0.35 - 0.35 × 0.65 + 0.65 × 0.65)

Accepted Answer

1.0

Answer

0.30

Answer

0.70

Answer

1.25

Question 53

If 2^(x-1) + 2^(x+1) = 320, then find the value of x.

Accepted Answer

7

Answer

6

Answer

8

Answer

5

Question 54

Evaluate the value of: 72 ÷ [18 - {16 - (14 - 12 - 4)}]

Accepted Answer

36

Answer

48

Answer

60

Answer

72

Question 55

Evaluate the expression strictly adhering to the BODMAS rule: 50 - [ 3 × { (12 ÷ 4 + 1) - (2^2 + 6 ÷ 3) } + (9 - 2 × 5) ]

Accepted Answer

57

Answer

43

Answer

53

Answer

61

Question 56

The Highest Common Factor (HCF) of two distinct positive integers is 6, and their Least Common Multiple (LCM) is 84. If both integers are strictly greater than 10, what is the sum of the squares of these two integers?

Accepted Answer

1908

Answer

7092

Answer

504

Answer

2160

Question 57

A positive integer N is defined as the smallest perfect square that is completely divisible by 4, 9, and 14. Determine the sum of the digits of N.

Accepted Answer

18

Answer

9

Answer

15

Answer

21

Question 58

A fruit seller started his day with a certain quantity of mangoes. On Monday, he sold 30% of his total mangoes. On Tuesday, he sold 40% of the remaining mangoes. On Wednesday, he replenished his stock by adding new mangoes equal to 20% of the initial quantity he had on Monday. If, after all these transactions, the fruit seller has 620 mangoes left, what was the total number of mangoes he had at the very beginning of Monday?

Accepted Answer

1000

Answer

950

Answer

1240

Answer

880

Question 59

In a two-candidate election, 20% of the registered voters did not cast their votes. Out of the votes polled, 25% were declared invalid. Candidate A secured 60% of the valid votes and won the election against Candidate B by a margin of 2700 votes. What was the total number of registered voters in the election?

Accepted Answer

22500

Answer

20000

Answer

25000

Answer

18000

Question 60

A merchant deals with two articles, A and B. For article A, the marked price is set 25% above its cost price. After offering a discount of 10% on the marked price of article A, the merchant still earns a profit of Rs. 80. For article B, its cost price is Rs. 100 less than the cost price of article A. If article B is sold at a profit of 20%, what is the combined selling price of both articles A and B?

Accepted Answer

1368

Answer

1720

Answer

1152

Answer

1395

Question 61

A shopkeeper sells two items, A and B. For item A, he marks its price 40% above its cost price and offers a 20% discount on the marked price. For item B, he offers two successive discounts of 10% and 15% on its marked price. If the cost price of item A is ₹1200, the profit earned on item A is equal to the profit earned on item B, and the selling price of item B is ₹2295, then find the marked price of item B and the overall profit percentage if both items were sold as a single transaction.

Accepted Answer

₹3000 and 8.59%

Answer

₹3000 and 9.15%

Answer

₹2800 and 8.59%

Answer

₹3200 and 7.85%

Question 62

In a school, initially, the ratio of boys to girls was 7:5. After 20 new boys and 10 new girls were admitted, the new ratio of boys to girls became 11:7. Subsequently, 5 boys left the school, and 15 more girls were admitted. What was the initial total number of students in the school, and what is the final ratio of boys to girls?

Accepted Answer

Initial total: 60, Final ratio: 1:1

Answer

Initial total: 60, Final ratio: 1:2

Answer

Initial total: 50, Final ratio: 1:1

Answer

Initial total: 70, Final ratio: 2:1

Question 63

A, B, and C started a business. A invested ₹25,000, B invested ₹30,000, and C invested ₹35,000. After 4 months, A withdrew ₹5,000, B increased his investment by ₹10,000, and C brought in an additional partner D who invested ₹20,000 for the remaining period. If C also withdrew ₹5,000 when D joined, and the total profit at the end of the year was ₹124,000, what is the difference between B's share and D's share of the profit?

Accepted Answer

₹28,000

Answer

₹25,000

Answer

₹30,000

Answer

₹22,000

Question 64

A, B, and C can complete a piece of work individually in 20, 30, and 40 days respectively. They started the work together. After 6 days, A left the work. B and C continued for another 4 days, after which B also left. C then completed the remaining work. If C's efficiency was reduced by 25% for the last phase of work, in how many total days was the entire work completed?

Accepted Answer

146/9 days

Answer

152/9 days

Answer

160/9 days

Answer

140/9 days

Section	Questions
Indian Polity	2
Chemistry	6
Biology	6
Economics	8
Physics	6
History	1
Computer	6
Traditional General Knowledge	7
Geography	2
Environment & Ecology	6
Number System	1
Decimal Fractions	1
Indices and Surds	1
Simplification	2
LCM and HCF	2
Percentage	2
Profit & Loss	1
Discount	1
Ratio & Proportion	1
Partnership	1
Work & Time	1
Alligation	1
Simple Interest	1
Compound Interest	1
Problems Based on Age	2
Average	1
Speed, Time & Distance	1
Algebra	7
Mensuration	1
Trigonometry	1
Co-ordinate Geometry	1
Geometry	1
Elementary Statistics & Probability	1
Data Interpretation	1
Arithmetic	1
Analogy	2
Coding-Decoding	2
Classification	3
Series	1
Missing Number/Letter/Term/Figure	2
Direction Test	1
Blood Relations	1
Arithmetical Operations	1
Venn Diagram	2
Diagram Analysis	2
Syllogism	2
Statement and Conclusion	2
Statement/Arguments/Assumptions	3
Data Sufficiency	1
Order and Ranking / Seating Arrangement	2
Counting Figures	1
Dice/Cube/Cuboid	1
Reasoning Miscellaneous	2
Statement and Assumption	1
Blood Relation	3

RRB NTPC CBT 2 | Free Mock Test 2026 | 120 MCQs

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