RRB NTPC CBT-2 Free Mock Test 2

Question 1

Which of the following statements regarding British administration and reforms in India is INCORRECT?

Accepted Answer

C) Lord Cornwallis is primarily known for his association with the controversial Ilbert Bill, which sought to eliminate racial discrimination in the judicial system by allowing Indian judges to preside over cases involving European subjects.

Question 2

Consider the following statements regarding historical structures and their associated details in India: 1. The Jama Masjid in Delhi, a prominent example of Mughal architecture, was commissioned by Emperor Shah Jahan and completed in 1656. 2. The Badshahi Mosque in Lahore, now in Pakistan, was built by Emperor Aurangzeb and is one of the largest mosques from the Mughal era. 3. The Mecca Masjid in Hyderabad, initiated by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, was eventually completed under the patronage of Emperor Jahangir. 4. The Dilwara Temples on Mount Abu, renowned for their intricate marble carvings, were primarily constructed by the Solanki (Chalukya) dynasty minister, Vimal Shah, dedicated to Jain Tirthankaras. Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?

Accepted Answer

B) 3 only

Question 3

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian National Congress and key events of the early 20th century in India: 1. The Surat Split of 1907, which saw a division between the 'Extremists' and 'Moderates' within the Indian National Congress, occurred under the presidency of Dr. Rash Behari Ghosh. 2. The official declaration of the Swadeshi Movement, a direct response to the Partition of Bengal, was made on August 7, 1905, at the Calcutta Town Hall. 3. Lord Curzon, who ordered the Partition of Bengal in July 1905, was also the Viceroy during the annulment of the partition in 1911. 4. Jawaharlal Nehru presided over the Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress in December 1929, where the resolution for 'Purna Swaraj' (Complete Self-Rule) was declared as the ultimate goal. Which of the above statements is/are CORRECT?

Accepted Answer

A) 1, 2 and 4 only

Question 4

Analyse the following statements concerning the Dandi March and the Civil Disobedience Movement, and identify the INCORRECT statement:

Accepted Answer

D) One of the defining characteristics of the Civil Disobedience Movement was the widespread attendance of the youth in schools and colleges, demonstrating solidarity with the national cause.

Question 5

Evaluate the following statements regarding ancient and medieval Indian monuments and archaeological sites: 1. The Brihadeeswarar Temple in Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is notable for being constructed entirely from sandstone, reflecting the architectural prowess of the Chola dynasty. 2. The Dilwara Temples, a group of exquisite Jain temples located on Mount Abu in Rajasthan, are renowned for their intricate marble carvings and were primarily commissioned by the Solanki dynasty. 3. The Bhimbetka rock shelters in Madhya Pradesh, famous for prehistoric cave paintings, have been designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site and contain artworks spanning from the Paleolithic to the Mesolithic periods. 4. The Thousand Pillar Temple in Hanamkonda, Telangana, a significant Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Vishnu, Shiva, and Surya, was constructed by King Krishnadevaraya of the Vijayanagara Empire in the 12th century. Identify the statement(s) that are INCORRECT.

Accepted Answer

C) 1 and 4 only

Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding the Fundamental Rights (FRs) and Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) enshrined in the Indian Constitution, along with their enforcement mechanisms: 1. Fundamental Rights are justiciable, providing individual citizens with specific rights enforceable through the Supreme Court via Article 32, which allows for the issuance of various writs like Mandamus and Habeas Corpus. 2. Directive Principles of State Policy, while foundational for governance, are non-justiciable and primarily aim at establishing socio-economic democracy and promoting community welfare, encompassing provisions such as securing just and humane conditions of work (Article 42) and protecting monuments of national importance (Article 49). 3. The right to freedom of religion (Article 25-28), including the freedom to manage religious affairs (Article 26), is a Fundamental Right available exclusively to Indian citizens, whereas the right to equality of opportunity in public employment (Article 16) is available to both citizens and foreigners. 4. The writ of Mandamus can be issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to transfer a case to itself or to quash an order already passed by a lower court. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

A) 1 and 2 only

Question 7

Consider the following statements regarding the institutional framework and historical evolution of governance in India: 1. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar famously referred to Article 32 of the Indian Constitution, guaranteeing the Right to Constitutional Remedies, as the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution, empowering individuals to approach the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. 2. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, which established the institution of Lokpal as an anti-corruption ombudsman, was first introduced as a bill in the Indian Parliament in 1968, but it took several decades and public movements to finally be enacted into law in 2013. 3. In a parliamentary democracy like India, the executive branch is primarily responsible for the implementation and administration of laws, while the legislature, comprising the Parliament, is tasked with the creation and amendment of laws, and the judiciary with their interpretation. 4. The Indian Official Secrets Act, 1904, enacted during the colonial era, significantly curtailed the freedom of the press and was a direct response to the growing nationalist sentiments expressed through various vernacular newspapers. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

C) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 8

Analyze the foundational principles of the Indian Constitution by considering the following statements about Fundamental Rights (FRs), Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs), federal structure, and critical constitutional amendments: 1. While Fundamental Rights establish a political democracy and are legally enforceable, the Directive Principles of State Policy are aimed at realizing socio-economic democracy and promoting the welfare state ideal, though they are not directly enforceable in courts. 2. The Sarkaria Commission, established in 1983, primarily recommended measures to strengthen the financial autonomy of states and suggested devolution of more powers to local self-governing bodies, rather than focusing on the balance of power between the Union and the States. 3. The Anti-Defection Law, introduced by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment in 1985 and added to the Tenth Schedule, sought to curb political defection but has been criticized for potentially undermining the individual freedom of speech of legislators and the principles of inner-party democracy. 4. The Indian federal system, while possessing features of a unitary state, is characterized by a clear division of powers between the Union and State governments, with each operating in its own sphere, and financial dependence of the Union on the states for revenue collection being a primary feature. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

A) 1 and 3 only

Question 9

Delve into the complexities of India's post-independence institutional and political development by evaluating the following statements: 1. The Visalandhra movement, advocating for a united state for all Telugu-speaking people, successfully led to the formation of Andhra Pradesh in 1956 through the States Reorganisation Act, by merging Telugu-speaking areas of Hyderabad with Andhra State. 2. During the Constituent Assembly debates, the argument against separate electorates for minorities, notably articulated by Govind Ballabh Pant, was based on the belief that such a system would isolate minorities and hinder their integration into the national mainstream. 3. The term 'Aaya Ram Gaya Ram' gained notoriety in Indian politics to describe the frequent floor-crossing by legislators, prompting the eventual enactment of the Anti-Defection Law, which, despite its intent, has raised concerns about curtailing legislative independence. 4. The Lokpal institution, established as an anti-corruption ombudsman, is empowered to investigate complaints of maladministration against public authorities, and its structure, comprising a chairperson and up to eight members, ensures a broad oversight mechanism. Which of the above statements are correct and accurately reflect historical and constitutional developments?

Accepted Answer

D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 10

Critically evaluate the composition, electoral dynamics, and key functional aspects of the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Indian Parliament, considering its historical evolution and recent constitutional amendments: 1. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha, post the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019, is constitutionally capped at 550 members, consisting of not more than 530 representatives of the States and not more than 20 representatives of the Union Territories. 2. The first general elections for the Lok Sabha were conducted in 1951-52, leading to the formation of the First Lok Sabha, and subsequently, the 2019 general elections constituted the 17th Lok Sabha. 3. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha, elected by its members, presides over the joint sittings of both Houses of Parliament, and historically, M. Ananthasayanam Ayyangar served as the Speaker during the Second Lok Sabha. 4. Currently, the state of Uttar Pradesh holds the highest number of elected Lok Sabha seats among all Indian states, significantly impacting national political outcomes due to its large electoral representation. Which of the above statements are correct and reflect the contemporary understanding of the Lok Sabha?

Accepted Answer

D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 11

Which of the following currency-country pairs is INCORRECTLY matched, specifically considering recent significant changes in monetary policy or international economic integration?

Accepted Answer

A) Croatia - Kuna

Question 12

In the context of sustainable agriculture and long-term soil health, which combination of farming practices is most effective in maintaining or enhancing soil mineral content and nitrogen levels, while simultaneously mitigating soil erosion and improving overall farm productivity?

Accepted Answer

B) Crop rotation including legumes, minimal tillage, and cover cropping

Question 13

Consider the following statements regarding the major river systems of Peninsular India and their associated geographical features and tributaries: 1. The Narmada and Tapi rivers are significant west-flowing rivers that drain into the Arabian Sea, forming estuaries rather than deltas. 2. The Godavari River, often called the 'Dakshin Ganga', originates from the Brahmagiri hills in Nashik district, Maharashtra, and is the second-longest peninsular river. 3. The Krishna River system, originating near Mahabaleshwar, has major tributaries like Tungabhadra, Bhima, Musi, and Manjira, with Manjira being a tributary of the Godavari. 4. The Dhuandhar Falls, a prominent waterfall, is formed by the Teesta River in Madhya Pradesh. Which of the above statements are INCORRECT?

Accepted Answer

C) Only 3 and 4

Question 14

Analyze the following statements concerning India's international land and maritime boundaries: 1. The Radcliffe Line demarcates the land border between India and Pakistan. 2. The Indian states sharing a land border with Nepal include Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Sikkim, and West Bengal. 3. Assam shares a direct land border with Myanmar, making it one of the 'Seven Sisters' states bordering Myanmar. 4. The 10-Degree Channel separates the Andaman and Nicobar Islands from each other, while the Palk Strait separates India from Sri Lanka. Which of the statements provided above are CORRECT?

Accepted Answer

B) 1, 2, and 4 only

Question 15

Evaluate the following statements regarding the geographical characteristics and international relations of India: 1. Indira Point, located in the Nicobar Islands, represents the southernmost point of the Indian Union, while the southernmost point of mainland India is Kanyakumari. 2. India's coastline is shared by 9 states and 5 Union Territories, a count that includes island territories. 3. India's total land area constitutes approximately 2.4% of the Earth's total land area, making it the seventh-largest country in terms of geographical area. 4. Indian Standard Time (IST), based on 82.5°E longitude, is exactly 1 hour and 30 minutes ahead of Pakistan Standard Time (PKT), which is based on 75°E longitude. How many of the above statements are CORRECT?

Accepted Answer

B) Only two

Question 16

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) frequently adjusts various rates as part of its monetary policy to manage liquidity and inflation. Which of the following statements most accurately defines the 'Bank Rate' in the context of the RBI's operations?

Accepted Answer

D) The interest rate at which the central bank (RBI) lends money to commercial banks for long-term purposes without the need for collateral, primarily to control credit and liquidity in the economy.

Question 17

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) employs various tools to manage the money supply, credit availability, and overall economic stability in the country. Considering the diverse range of economic policies, which of the following is NOT typically considered a direct component or tool of the RBI's monetary policy?

Accepted Answer

A) Goods and Services Tax (GST)

Question 18

In the study of consumer behavior and demand, certain goods exhibit peculiar characteristics that seemingly defy the fundamental law of demand. Giffen goods are one such anomaly. Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between the income effect and the substitution effect for a Giffen good, leading to its upward-sloping demand curve?

Accepted Answer

B) The income effect is negative and stronger than the positive substitution effect, leading to an increase in demand as price rises.

Question 19

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the sole authority for issuing currency notes in India. Over time, the system for currency issuance has evolved to ensure stability and public confidence. Which specific system does the RBI currently adopt for issuing currency notes, ensuring both flexibility and a stable backing for the currency?

Accepted Answer

D) Minimum Reserve System

Question 20

The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) is a centrally sponsored scheme in India aimed at providing social security and welfare benefits to the poor and vulnerable sections of society. It comprises several sub-schemes addressing different demographic needs. Which of the following initiatives, while a significant government program, is NOT a component of the National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP)?

Accepted Answer

C) AYUSH Mission

Question 21

The Indian Institute of Science (IISc), often regarded as a premier institution for scientific research and higher education in India, was established with the vision of promoting original investigation in all branches of theoretical and applied science. Considering its historical foundation and the significant contributions of its key patrons, which of the following statements accurately identifies its primary location and a crucial aspect of its establishment?

Accepted Answer

A) Bengaluru, established in 1909 with support from J. N. Tata and the Maharaja of Mysore.

Question 22

'Pather Panchali', a seminal Bengali novel, is celebrated for its poignant portrayal of rural life in Bengal and its profound humanism, eventually inspiring a globally acclaimed cinematic masterpiece. Identify the author of this literary work and describe the cultural impact of its renowned film adaptation directed by Satyajit Ray.

Accepted Answer

A) Bibhutibhushan Bandyopadhyay; The film adaptation, directed by Satyajit Ray, is considered a landmark in world cinema and a foundational work of parallel cinema in India, portraying universal themes of childhood, struggle, and resilience.

Question 23

India observes Constitution Day, also known as Samvidhan Divas or National Law Day, annually to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India. This day holds immense historical and democratic significance. Which of the following statements correctly identifies the date of observation and elaborates on the historical event it signifies, including the year of its initial adoption and the purpose behind its celebration?

Accepted Answer

A) November 26; It commemorates the date in 1949 when the Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution, marking a pivotal moment in India's journey towards a sovereign republic.

Question 24

The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) is a crucial independent agency of the U.S. federal government responsible for the civilian space program, as well as aeronautics and aerospace research. Its establishment was a direct response to a significant global event, propelling the United States into the forefront of space exploration. Which of the following statements accurately identifies the full form of NASA, its founding year, and the primary historical context that led to its creation?

Accepted Answer

A) National Aeronautics and Space Administration; Founded in 1958 in response to the Soviet Union's launch of Sputnik 1, initiating the Space Race.

Question 25

National Education Day is celebrated annually on November 11th in India to commemorate the birth anniversary of a pivotal figure in India's independence movement and its post-colonial educational reforms. This leader's vision significantly shaped the educational landscape of the nascent nation. Identify this personality and detail their key contributions to the establishment and development of modern education in India.

Accepted Answer

A) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad; As India's first Education Minister, he championed universal education, played a crucial role in establishing institutions like AICTE and UGC, and advocated for scientific and technical education.

Question 26

A celestial observer notes that stars appear to twinkle, while planets do not exhibit this phenomenon significantly. Furthermore, a mirage is observed in a desert, and the Sun appears to rise earlier and set later than its actual position. Which of the following statements correctly identifies the primary optical phenomenon responsible for these observations and provides a robust explanation for the differential twinkling of stars and planets?

Accepted Answer

A) Atmospheric refraction is responsible for both star twinkling and the early/late sunrise/sunset. Stars twinkle because their point-like light undergoes continuous, rapid changes in the refractive index of Earth's turbulent atmosphere, leading to variations in perceived brightness and position. Planets, being extended sources, average out these variations, appearing steady. A mirage, however, is caused by total internal reflection.

Question 27

A municipality is planning to upgrade its street lighting infrastructure. They are considering various options, including high-pressure sodium (HPS) lamps, neon lamps, and modern LED systems. Which of the following statements accurately compares and contrasts these lighting technologies, considering their operational principles, light spectrum, and practical applications in urban environments?

Accepted Answer

A) High-pressure sodium lamps produce a distinct monochromatic yellow-orange light due to the excitation of sodium atoms, offering excellent visibility in foggy conditions and high energy efficiency, which makes them ideal for general street lighting despite poor color rendering. Neon lamps, conversely, utilize excited neon gas to produce a characteristic reddish-orange light, primarily used for signage and decorative purposes due to their limited power output and unique color. LED systems, however, offer broad spectrum light and high color rendering through semiconductor technology, enabling versatile applications from traffic signals to adaptive street lighting with superior energy efficiency and lifespan.

Question 28

Observing celestial bodies requires specialized instruments, each designed for specific purposes and overcoming unique challenges. Consider the observation of the Sun, distant galaxies, and the measurement of atmospheric properties. Which of the following statements accurately describes the instruments used for these tasks and their underlying principles?

Accepted Answer

A) A helioscope is specifically designed for safe direct observation of the Sun, utilizing filters or projection methods to prevent eye damage from intense solar radiation. Telescopes (optical and radio) are used for observing distant galaxies, with optical telescopes relying on light gathering and magnification, while radio telescopes detect electromagnetic radiation at radio wavelengths. Hygrometers measure atmospheric humidity, and anemometers measure wind speed based on mechanical rotation or ultrasonic principles.

Question 29

The Chandrashekhar Limit is a critical concept in astrophysics, profoundly influencing our understanding of stellar evolution and the ultimate fate of stars. Considering a star's initial mass, describe how the Chandrashekhar Limit determines the possible end-states of stellar remnants and the underlying physical processes involved. Which of the following statements best describes this phenomenon?

Accepted Answer

A) The Chandrashekhar Limit defines the maximum stable mass for a white dwarf star, approximately 1.4 solar masses. Stars with initial masses leading to core remnants below this limit will evolve into white dwarfs, supported by electron degeneracy pressure. If the remnant core mass exceeds this limit, electron degeneracy pressure is insufficient to counteract gravity, leading to further collapse into either a neutron star (supported by neutron degeneracy pressure) or, for even higher masses, a black hole (where gravity overcomes all degeneracy pressures).

Question 30

A power supply unit in an electronic device requires conversion of alternating current (AC) from the mains into stable direct current (DC). Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of a PN junction diode in this process and elaborates on its fundamental operating characteristics and primary applications in electronic circuits?

Accepted Answer

A) A PN junction diode acts primarily as a rectifier, allowing current to flow predominantly in one direction (forward bias) and blocking it in the reverse direction (reverse bias). This unidirectional conduction property enables it to convert AC to pulsating DC. The diode's I-V characteristic curve shows a negligible current in reverse bias until breakdown voltage, and an exponential increase in current after a threshold voltage in forward bias, making it crucial for rectification, voltage regulation (Zener diode), and signal demodulation.

Question 31

What is the primary purpose of a railway recruitment board like RRB NTPC?

Accepted Answer

B) To conduct exams for recruitment

Question 32

What is a semiconductor?

Accepted Answer

A) A material with electrical conductivity between that of a conductor and an insulator.

Question 33

What is the process of removing salt and other minerals from seawater to make it drinkable, which is also known as desalination?

Accepted Answer

B) Desalination

Question 34

Which of the following is used for cooking food?

Accepted Answer

C) Liquefied Petroleum Gas

Question 35

Which is the first man-made synthetic fibre that is used in coatings, wires, etc., due to its insulation properties in the electronics industry?

Accepted Answer

C) Nylon

Question 36

What is the definition of Protoplasm?

Accepted Answer

A) The living substance inside a cell

Question 37

Which layer of the skin is responsible for cell division and growth, specifically referring to the Stratum germinativum or Stratum basale, and is also known as the Stratum spinosum in some contexts?

Accepted Answer

D) Stratum spinosum

Question 38

What are the statements about the water cycle?

Accepted Answer

D)

Question 39

189. Which of the following in humans has a high affinity for oxygen?

Accepted Answer

B) Hemoglobin

Question 40

What is the respiratory pigment in humans?

Accepted Answer

B) Hemoglobin

Question 41

In MS Word, which keyboard shortcut performs the Redo operation after an undo action?

Accepted Answer

B) Ctrl + Y

Question 42

Which of the following is NOT a part of Microsoft Office 2019?

Accepted Answer

D) Keynote

Question 43

Which of the following is NOT an input device?

Accepted Answer

D) Processor

Question 44

What is the full form of McAfee?

Accepted Answer

B) McAfee Associates Enterprise

Question 45

Who invented 'www'?

Accepted Answer

A) Tim Berners-Lee

Question 46

The U.S. Green Building Council (USGBC) developed a globally recognized green building certification program. Beyond simply identifying sustainable buildings, what are the core objectives and defining characteristics of this program, including its tiered certification structure and its impact on the wider adoption of eco-friendly construction practices?

Accepted Answer

A) Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design (LEED), which promotes a holistic approach to sustainable building, offering certification levels like Certified, Silver, Gold, and Platinum, and is widely adopted globally for its comprehensive framework across various building types.

Question 47

Evaluate the following statements regarding energy resources and identify the one that most accurately describes the characteristics and classification of various energy sources, including a specific focus on renewable options and marine energy potentials, within the broader context of global energy transition and sustainability challenges.

Accepted Answer

A) Solar energy, a prominent example of an inexhaustible natural resource, is classified as renewable, contrasting with fossil fuels like petroleum and natural gas which are finite and non-renewable; however, marine energy sources such as tidal, wave, and ocean thermal energy, though renewable, often face significant technological and environmental hurdles for large-scale, cost-effective extraction and widespread integration into national grids.

Question 48

In a typical terrestrial food chain, the population size and biomass at different trophic levels follow a distinct pyramidal structure. Explain why the producer level consistently supports the largest population and biomass, and discuss the ecological principles, particularly the concept of energy transfer efficiency, that dictate this fundamental organization and its profound implications for ecosystem stability and resilience.

Accepted Answer

A) Producers (such as green plants) form the base of the ecological pyramid due to their ability to synthesize organic matter through photosynthesis, directly converting solar energy. This efficient energy capture at the lowest trophic level ensures a large biomass and population, supporting sequentially smaller populations and biomasses of primary, secondary, and tertiary consumers higher up the chain, driven by the 10% energy transfer rule and the inevitability of energy loss as heat at each trophic transition.

Question 49

Kaziranga National Park in India is renowned globally for hosting the largest population of the Indian One-Horned Rhinoceros (Rhinoceros unicornis), a remarkable conservation success story for an endangered megafauna. Analyze the intricate combination of ecological factors, geographical advantages, and robust conservation strategies that have enabled this sanctuary to effectively protect and foster such a thriving population, considering the pervasive threats faced by rhinoceros species worldwide.

Accepted Answer

A) Kaziranga's success stems from its unique floodplains and grasslands (tall elephant grass), nourished by the Brahmaputra River, providing an ideal habitat and abundant fodder for rhinos. This is coupled with rigorous anti-poaching measures, community involvement, constant monitoring, and the park's designation as a UNESCO World Heritage Site, ensuring political will and international support for habitat preservation and protection against illegal wildlife trade, distinguishing it from parks relying solely on protected area status.

Question 50

Carbon credits are a crucial market-based mechanism in international climate policy designed to mitigate greenhouse gas emissions. Elucidate the fundamental principle behind carbon credits, their origin in international agreements like the Kyoto Protocol, and how they function within a 'Cap-and-Trade' system to incentivize emission reductions while allowing for flexibility in achieving compliance, and discuss their intended and unintended consequences on global environmental governance.

Accepted Answer

A) Carbon credits represent a verifiable unit of greenhouse gas emission reduction, equivalent to one metric ton of carbon dioxide (CO2e), and are tradable permits that allow a country or organization to emit a certain amount of greenhouse gases. Originating from mechanisms like the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) under the Kyoto Protocol, they function within a 'Cap-and-Trade' system where a cap is set on total emissions, and entities with surplus credits can sell them to those exceeding their limit, thereby creating a financial incentive for emission reduction and investment in cleaner technologies.

Question 51

A train running at 54 km/h crosses a platform in 30 seconds. If the length of the train is 150 m, what is the length of the platform?

Accepted Answer

B) 340 m

Question 52

What is the value of x in the equation: (2/3) - (x/5) = 1/10

Accepted Answer

A) 1/5

Question 53

Which of the following fractions lies between 4/7 and 9/11?

Accepted Answer

A) 2/3

Question 54

If 15 = 3.88, then the value of (1 + 2/x) * (25 - x) / (x - x^2) = 2 * (1 + 12/x) when x - x^2 = 144/625

Accepted Answer

C) 3.293

Question 55

9. Calculate 19170 ÷ 54 ÷ 5.

Accepted Answer

C) 71

Question 56

Find the value of (919 + 9.019 + 0.919 + 9.0019).

Accepted Answer

C) 937.9399

Question 57

Find the HCF of 2^4 × 3^4 × 5^3 × 7^2, 2^2 × 3^6 × 5^5, 126, 198 and 162.

Accepted Answer

D) 2^2 × 3^2 × 5^3 × 7^2

Question 58

If Mohan scored 72% marks in Physics and 68% marks in Chemistry, assuming that the weightage of both subjects is equal, find the percentage marks Mohan obtained in both subjects combined.

Accepted Answer

D) 70%

Question 59

A person invests 30,000 in a scheme with a 25% return. If the interest is compounded annually, what is the percentage increase in the amount after one year, given that the simple interest for one year is 5,000 and the amount after one year is 42,000?

Accepted Answer

A) 12.50%

Question 60

Aparna marks an item 50% above its cost price. To gain approximately 10%, what percentage discount should be given?

Accepted Answer

A) 27%

Question 61

A mixture is made by mixing 4 parts of one liquid with 5 parts of another liquid. If 72 units of the first liquid are used, how many units of the second liquid are used?

Accepted Answer

B) 36 units

Question 62

A train running at 54 km/h crosses a platform in 30 seconds. If the length of the train is 150 m, what is the length of the platform?

Accepted Answer

B) 400 m

Question 63

A mixture is made by mixing two types of liquids, A and B. The ratio of A to B is 3:6. If 72 units of A are used, how many units of B are used?

Accepted Answer

C) 216 units

Question 64

A person invests Rs. 1000 at an interest rate of 4% per annum. If the interest is compounded annually, what is the amount after 2 years?

Accepted Answer

B) 1083.60